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The purpose of the ERPM examination is to assess whether a candidate can approach medical practice with the appropriate intellectual skills of enquiry, clinical reasoning, critical thinking and decision making; possessing sufficient knowledge of the basic and clinical sciences, and an understanding of the underlying principles of scientific method; and the ability to create a differential diagnosis and rationalize a treatment plan for common clinical situations prevalent in Sri Lanka.

 

The candidates should also be able to apply the knowledge of basic sciences to explain the aetio-pathogenesis of disease conditions. They should demonstrate an understanding of the principles of essential procedural skills and the ability to perform such procedures. They should be able to communicate with patients respecting their dignity, rights, fears and anxieties, taking into consideration the socio-economic, cultural, religious and educational background of the patients.

 

IN MORE SPECIFIC TERMS:

 

Candidates should:-

 

have a good  knowledge of the normal and abnormal structure and function of the human body and of changes occurring during the life cycle.

 

have knowledge of signs and symptoms of disease, be able to take a good history, conduct an examination of the patient, order the relevant investigations, arrive at a differential diagnosis and diagnosis, and know the non-pharmacological and pharmacological management of diseases.

 

know to manage medical emergencies.

 

know about disability, rehabilitation and handicap;

 

know the role of the family and extended family, about inter-relationships and interactions with the society, and be aware of cultural and ethnic differences about the perception and response to illnesses;

 

 

demonstrate good communication skills e.g. breaking bad news, informing relatives of results of investigations and informing them of the patient’s condition.

 

Understand the concepts of patient confidentiality, privileged communication and when to breach patient confidentiality; the importance of informed consent; concept of medical negligence, civil and criminal liability.

 

demonstrate knowledge of medical ethics, and behave in an ethical manner.

 

 

understand the concepts of evidence based medicine

 

know basic statistics.

 

 

understand the concepts of self learning and lifelong learning

 

know about the importance of record keeping.

 

demonstrate ability to work as part of a team

 

 

know about doctor patient relationship, patients rights and the necessity to use a chaperone when examining adults  of the opposite sex.

 

be able to educate patients and the public with a view to health promotion and disease prevention.

 

SAMPLE MCQs

 

The answers are given at the end of each question in sequential order: T = true; F = false

 

MEDICINE 

  1. Characteristic features of aortic stenosis include
  2. pansystolic murmur at the apex
  3. loud second heart sound
  4. exertional syncope
  5. heaving apex beat
  6. early onset of symptoms

FFTTF

  1. 2. Features that support a diagnosis of infective endocarditis in a patient with fever for 2 weeks and  a pansystolic  murmur at the apex would include
  2. presence of red  blood cells  in  urine
  3. splenomegaly
  4. linear haemorrhages under the  nails
  5. erythema marginatum
  6. microcytic hypochromic anaemia

TTTFF

  1. False negative Mantoux  test  is  known  to occur  in
  2. miliary tuberculosis
  3. HIV infection
  4. patients treated with  conventional  antibiotics
  5. infection with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis
  6. recent measles infection

TTFFT

 

  1. Elevated blood urea  with  normal  serum creatinine  is characteristically  seen in
  2. upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage
  3. acute renal tubular necrosis
  4. rhabdomyolysis
  5. dehydration
  6. leptospirosis

TFFTF

  1. Vitamin B12 deficiency
  2. occurs in total vegetarians
  3. is a known cause of   peripheral  neuropathy
  4. due to pernicious anaemia can be effectively treated with oral cyanocobalamin
  5. can be differentiated from folate  deficiency  on the blood  picture
  6. is caused by  severe hookworm  infestation

TTFFF

  1. In idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
  2. splenomegaly is a  characteristic  feature
  3. low WBC count is a common  finding
  4. ESR is usually raised
  5. megakaryocyte count in the bone marrow is raised
  6. steroid is the first  line  of  treatment                                                                                               FFFTT
  7. A 35-year old female complains of joint pain of two  months  duration. The following features favour a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis
  8. arthritis affecting three or more  joint  areas
  9. involvement of the distal interphalangeal joint
  10. morning stiffness lasting  more than  3 hours
  11. symmetrical arthritis
  12. anterior uveitis

TFTTF

  1. 8. Characteristic features of  Guillain-Barre  syndrome  include
  2. lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy
  3. glove and stocking type sensory loss
  4. distal more than  proximal  motor weakness
  5. absent reflexes in limbs
  6. elevated CSF protein levels

TFFTT

  1. Causes of lymphocytic  pleocytosis  in  the  CSF  include
  2. viral meningitis
  3. tuberculous meningitis
  4. partially treated pyogenic  meningitis
  5. meningococcal meningitis
  6. leptospirosis

TTTFF

 

  1. Features of primary  hypothyroidism  in an adult  include
  2. loss of scalp hair
  3. pericardial effusion
  4. macrocytic anaemia
  5. low serum creatinine phosphokinase  (CPK) level
  6. ataxia

TTTFT

 

 

 

 

 

SURGERY

 

  1. In a patient who had a history of intermittent claudication – the following conditions need urgent surgical intervention to improve the limb circulation
  2. painful ulcer at the tip of a toe
  3. severe continuous pain of the affected calf requiring regular opioid analgesics
  4. claudication distance of 100 yards
  5. prominent varicose veins
  6. recurrent attacks of transient cerebral ischaemia (TIA)

 TTFFF

  1. A 55-year old man presents with symptoms suggestive of obstructive jaundice. He has a palpable gall bladder. Following is/are likely cause/s in this patient.
  2. carcinoma of the head of the Pancreas
  3. Gall stones
  4. Cholangiocarcinoma of the common hepatic dust
  5. uncomplicated choledochal cyst
  6. periampullary carcinoma

TFFFT

 

  1. 3. Regarding mid palmar space infections
  2. elevation of the hand delays the healing process
  3. mobilization of fingers should be delayed till infection is completely settled
  4. antibiotics are best administered orally in the initial management
  5. swelling of the dorsum of the hand is common.
  6. when the hand is splinted the metacarpophalangeal joint should be maintained in extension

FFFTF

 

 

  1. A 21-year old girl presents with a clinically solitary thyroid nodule, 2 cm in diameter. Features that indicate the possibility of malignancy in this nodule include
  2. cold nodule rather than a hot nodule in the Tc isotope scan
  3. history of exposure to ionizing radiation.
  4. presence of enlarged ipsilateral cervical lymph nodes
  5. recent voice change E. markedly reduced TSH levels.

TTTTF

 

  1. Saturation of oxygen (SaO2) measured by the pulse oxymeter
  2. gives a value of 70% in a healthy adult male breathing room air
  3. is affected by anaemia
  4. is unaffected by vasoconstriction
  5. is altered in old age
  6. can be increased over 100% by giving hyperbaric oxygen.

FFFTF

  1. An arterial blood gas report of a patient is as follows:

pH   – 7.21 (7.45 – 7.55)

pCO2 – 4 kPa (4.6 – 5.6)

pO2 – 13.3 kPa (10-13)

HCO3 – 11.5 mmol/l

This is compatible with :

  1. hypoventilation
  2. diabetic ketoacidosis
  3. gangrenous bowel
  4. pulmonary embolism
  5. tension pneumothorax

FTTFF

 

 

  1. An 84-year old male is brought with acute retention of urine of 24 hours duration. He has a tender distended bladder extending up to the umbilicus. Attempted catheterization with a size 16 Foley catheter fails.  In the immediate management of this patient
  2. Oral paracetamol should be administered to relieve the pain
  3. abdominal x ray should be performed urgently to exclude a bladder calculus
  4. supra pubic puncture should be performed
  5. intravenous infusion of 1 liter normal saline will facilitate urine flow
  6. intravenous frusemide will relieve the retention of urine

FFTFF

 

  1. 8. The following are true/false regarding head injury
  2. surgery is not indicated in most skull fractures
  3. drainage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ear is an indication for emergency surgery
  4. loss of consciousness after direct trauma to head is an indication for a skull x ray
  5. compound fractures of skull can occur without external injury
  6. rising blood pressure and bradycardia indicates raised intracranial pressure

TFTTT

 

  1. In upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
  2. spraying the throat with lignocaine reduces the risk of aspiration
  3. varices are usually seen in the lower oesophagus
  4. “J manoeuvre” is used to visualize the fundus of the stomach.
  5. first part of the duodenum is the ideal site for biopsy to detect Helicobacter pylori
  6. risk of oesophageal perforation is high in the presence of strictures

FTTFT

 

 

  1. The following are premalignant lesions
  2. adenomatous colorectal polyps
  3. duct ectasia affecting the breast
  4. intestinal metaplasia in the lower oesophagus
  5. hyperplastic polyp in the colon
  6. colonic angiodysplasia

TFTFF

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY 

 

  1. During the antenatal period
  2. an intrauterine pregnancy is recognized by transvaginal ultrasound scan at six weeks of amenorrhoea
  3. the uterine fundus is palpable at the symphysis pubis at 14 weeks of amenorrhoea
  4. maternal perception of fetal movements first occur between 18-20 weeks
  5. VDRL test is done as a diagnostic test for syphilis
  6. maternal serum triple test is offered to exclude Trisomy 21

TTTFF

  1. Anaemia complicating pregnancy
  2. is a risk factor for intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR)
  3. is defined if the haemoglobin is below 9 g%
  4. in Sri Lanka is predominantly due to iron deficiency.
  5. due to iron deficiency is treated with parenteral iron when close to term
  6. is associated with preterm labour

TFTTF

  1. In preterm labour
  2. Fibronectin test is used to identify patients at risk
  3. a potential cause is bacterial vaginosis
  4. a vaginal swab is taken for E.coli culture
  5. nifidipine is use for tocolysis
  6. vacuum delivery is recommended

TTFTF

  1. The perinatal management options of Rh D Negative alloimmunization are
  2. examination of maternal blood for rising levels of IgG
  3. amniocentesis
  4. ultrasound examination for fetal hydrops
  5. Predisolone to the mother
  6. delivery at 40 weeks

TTTFF

  1. The following are compatible with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia
  2. right hypochondrial pain
  3. polyuria
  4. pulmonary oedema
  5. elevated alkaline transferase
  6. polycythemia

TFTTF

  1. The correct statements regarding contraception are
  2. failure rate is expressed as a percentage
  3. in selecting a method patient’s parity has to be considered
  4. mitral valve prolapse is a contraindication for use of the combined oral contraceptive pill
  5. Depo-Provera will induce amenorrhoea
  6. Copper T 380 intrauterine device needs to be changed every 3 years

FTFTF

 

 

 

  1. The causes for acute pelvic pain and signs of hypovolaemia are
  2. hydrosalpinx
  3. ruptured tubal pregnancy
  4. torsion of an ovarian cyst
  5. endometriosis
  6. ruptured corpus luteum cyst

FTFFT

 

  1. Uterine fibromyomas are
  2. most commonly found in postmenopausal women
  3. associated with hydronephrosis
  4. considered as a predisposing factor for malprestations
  5. presented with acute abdominal pain due to calcification
  6. treated with Tamoxifen

FTTFF         

  1. 9. The causes of menorrhagia include
  2. adenomyosis
  3. pelvic inflammatory disease
  4. Ashermann syndrome
  5. chronic cervicitis
  6. retroversion of uterus

TTFFF

  1. A woman presenting with post menopausal bleeding to a district hospital
  2. needs speculum examination
  3. needs referral for endometrial evaluation
  4. is treated with progestogens for three months
  5. requires transfer for urgent hysterectomy
  6. requires hormone replacement therapy if the pelvic examination is normal

TTFFF

 

PAEDIATRICS     

  1. 1. Causes of neonatal jaundice on the fourth day of life include
  2. physiological jaundice
  3. breast milk jaundice
  4. septicaemia
  5. congenital spherocytosis
  6. hyperthyroidism

TFTTF

  1. Effective therapeutic modalities of management of a child with diabetic ketoacidosis include
  2. intravenous insulin infusion
  3. correction of acidosis at the onset of rehydration
  4. correction of hypokalaemia
  5. intravenous antibiotics
  6. oral metformin

TFTTF

 

  1. In a child with excessive bleeding after a tooth extraction , a prolonged APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time )and a normal bleeding time is compatible with a diagnosis of
  2. Factor VIII deficiency
  3. Factor IX deficiency
  4. Von Willebrand disease
  5. Glanzeman Disease
  6. Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura

TTFFF

 

  1. Following anticonvulsants and their side effects are correctly paired
  2. Carbamazepine – hepatotoxicity
  3. Vigabatrin – eye toxicity
  4. Phenytoin – ataxia
  5. Phenobarbitone – hyperactivity
  6. Sodium valproate – erythema multiforme

FTTTF

  1. 5. In a child with encephalopathy a diagnosis of Reye syndrome is suggested by
  2. a rapidly enlarging liver
  3. deep jaundice
  4. hypoglycaemia
  5. high serum ammonia
  6. focal neurological signs

TFTTF

  1. In nephrotic syndrome in children
  2. The commonest histological type is minimal change
  3. The congenital type has a good prognosis
  4. renal vein thrombosis is a known complication
  5. spontaneous peritonitis is commonly due to E-coli
  6. abdominal pain is a sign of gut ischemia

TFTFT

 

  1. In post streptococcal acute glomerular nephritis
  2. There is a significant risk of chronic renal failure
  3. Serum complement (C3) is low
  4. Microscopic haematuria is a feature
  5. Anti-hypertensive drugs should be started prophylactically
  6. Follow up of the patient is not necessary

FTTFF

 

  1. In measles
  2. Koplik spots are pathognomonic
  3. pneumonia is a serious complication
  4. non reactivity to Mantoux test occurs following an infection, due to immune suppression
  5. the rash typically occurs on the fifth day of the illness
  6. There is significant lymp node enlargement in the posterior cervical region

TTTFF

  1. In congenital rubella syndrome
  2. the risk of congenital infection significantly higher during the first  trimester
  3. atrio-septal defect is the commonest heart lesion
  4. Congenital cataract is a common finding
  5. Hydrocephalus is a known complication
  6. Virus is excreted in the urine of the baby for a long period

TFTFT

  1. In childhood obesity
  2. The best method to define obesity is with the Body Mass Index (BMI)
  3. insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is a well known complication
  4. During assessment measurement of the bone age and height is very important
  5. The incidence is increasing rapidly in developing countries
  6. There is a positive family history invariably

TTTTF

COMMUNITY MEDICINE

  1. Prevalence of a disease is increased by
  2. longer duration of the disease
  3. high case fatality rate
  4. increase in incidence
  5. improved cure rate
  6. better diagnostic facilities

TFTFT

  1. Anthropometric measures that can be used in a one-year old child include:
  2. weight
  3. mid upper arm circumference
  4. BMI
  5. head circumference
  6. chest circumference

TFFTT

  1. The following statements are true regarding case control studies
  2. it is an analytical study design
  3. suitable to study rare diseases
  4. can assess multiple risk factors of a disease
  5. relative risk is calculated as a measure of association
  6. recall bias is a limitation

TTTFT

  1. 4. Surveillance of dengue is carried out to
  2. predict epidemics
  3. study the disease trend
  4. identify risk factors
  5. evaluate control programmes
  6. set control programme priorities

TTFTT

 

  1. In Sri Lanka
  2. malaria is endemic in the North Central Province
  3. chicken pox is a common source epidemic
  4. measles vaccination is a secondary prevention measure
  5. non-communicable disease is the leading cause of death
  6. post-exposure prophylaxis is a rabies control strategy

TFFTT

  1. Occupational hearing loss:
  2. occurs from exposure to noise levels over 85 decibels during a working life time
  3. can be prevented by limiting the time of exposure
  4. can be detected early by performing periodic audiometric examinations
  5. starts at frequencies around 40 Hz
  6. can be reversed by removing the worker from the noisy environment

TTTFF

  1. The following statements are true of demographic indicators:
  2. The total fertility rate gives information on the average number of children born to a couple during their reproductive period.
  3. The infant mortality rate is an indicator of the health status of a population.
  4. Knowledge of the crude death rate and the crude birth rate will enable the calculation of the growth rate of a population.
  5. A neonatal death is defined as the death of an infant occurring in the first week of life.
  6. The majority of infant deaths in Sri Lanka occur in the neonatal period.

TTFFT

 

  1. 8. The following statements are true of contraceptive methods:
  2. The CuT 380A intrauterine device gives protection for 10 years after insertion
  3. Menstrual irregularities are a common side effect experienced by users of injectable DMPA.
  4. Traditional methods of family planning are included in the computation of the contraceptive prevalence rate (CPR).
  5. Oral contraceptives are contraindicated in women with migraine.
  6. The most popular method of contraception in Sri Lanka is the use of the intra-uterine device.

TTTTF

 

  1. 9. The following statements are true regarding notification of communicable diseases in Sri Lanka
  2. A fever of more than seven days duration is notifiable
  3. HIV/AIDS is now included in the list of notifiable diseases
  4. Medical practitioners in the private sector are not legally bound to notify
  5. An outpatient diagnosed to have typhoid fever should be notified
  6. Suspected cases should be notified before confirmation of the diagnosis

TFFTT

 

  1. 10. The following statements are true regarding tuberculosis:
  2. In Sri Lanka anti-tuberculous drugs are administered to adult contacts who are Mantoux positive
  3. BCG vaccination is given to infants at birth
  4. BCG vaccine is administered subcutaneously
  5. HIV infected persons are more susceptible to tuberculosis
  6. In a patient diagnosed with active tuberculosis, anti-tuberculous drugs should be administered for a minimum period of 6 months

FTFTT

PATHOLOGY

  1. 1. The following are features of apoptosis:
  2. Hydropic swelling of  the  affected cell
  3. Inflammatory reaction in the surrounding tissue
  4. Chromatin condensation at the periphery of nucleus.
  5. Formation of apoptotic bodies
  6. Death of a large area of a tissue

FFTTF

  1. 2. A 50-year  old male with a  history of intermittent  claudication   was  admitted   to  the casualty ward  with  a   blackish, pulseless , cold,  right foot.  The  following statements are true:
  2. This is an  example  of  secondary  gangrene.
  3. Gross oedema of the area is a feature.
  4. Affected area appears well demarcated from the normal area.
  5. Septicaemia is a  common complication.
  6. Venous obstruction is the  most  likely  cause.

TFTFF

 

  1. Fat embolism  syndrome
  2. manifests within 12  hours  of  injury
  3. peticheal rash is  a  feature
  4. is associated with  microinfarcts  of  brain
  5. can complicate air  embolism
  6. may be definitely  diagnosed  in  paraffin  embedded  sections.

FTTTF

 

  1. The following statements are true regarding  leprosy
  2. Spread of the  disease  occurs  following  close  contact  with  a  tuberculoid    leprosy  patient.
  3. Lepra bacilli are  easily  demonstrable  in  lepromatous  leprosy.
  4. Leonine (Lion like) facies  is  a  characterisic   feature  of  tuberuculoid  leprosy.
  5. Claw hand is  a  complication  observed  is  tuberculoid  leprosy.
  6. Humoral immunity  plays  an  important  the  role  during  the  healing  process.

FTFFF

  1. The following statements ate true regarding  cellular  adaptive  mechanisms:
  2. Metaplasia is  when  a  fully  differentiated  mature  tissue   changes  to  undifferentiated  tissue.
  3. Hyperplasia of cardiac  muscle  is  seen  around  a  site  of  myocardial  Infarction.
  4. Atrophic tissue functions  at  a  lower  metabolic  rate.
  5. Removal of a  diseased  kidney  leads  to  compensatory  hypertrophy of  the  remaining  kidney.
  6. Both hypertrophy &  hyperplasia  occurs  in  the  uterine  smooth  muscle  during  pregnancy.

FFTTT

  1. 6. The following statements are true regarding  dystrophic  calcification
  2. Deposition of calcium  salts  occur  is  normal  tissues.
  3. The serum calcium  levels  are usually  normal.
  4. Phlebolith is an  example.
  5. Demonstrable as blue  purple  deposits  in  a  H  &  E  section.
  6. Is a  common  finding  is  long  standing  multinodular  goitre.

FFTTT

  1. 7. Regarding wound healing
  2. Deep burns involving the skin heals by primary union
  3. Macrophages play an important role
  4. Fibrosis occurs within the first 72 hours of healing
  5. Rapid in a facial wound
  6. Irradiation is a promoting factor

FTFTF

  1. Chronic venous congestion
  2. occurs in hypovolaemic shock
  3. produces a nutmeg pattern in the liver
  4. is a cause of generalized oedema
  5. of the lungs is seen in tricuspid valve stenosis
  6. of the lungs leads to the formation of heart failure cells

FTTFT

  1. 9. Infarction
  2. is defined as necrosis of tissue due to loss of blood supply
  3. of cardiac muscle heals by regeneration of surrounding cells
  4. is not usually accompanied by an inflammatory reaction
  5. Release of intracytoplasmic enzymes from infarcted tissue is helpful in the diagnosis
  6. of brain appears as a fluid filled cyst after one month

TFFTT

 

  1. The following are features of pulmonary tuberculosis:
  2. Caseation occurs in both primary and post primary tuberculosis
  3. Haematogenous spread of tubercle bacilli produces miliary tuberculosis
  4. Haemorrhagic pleural effusion is a presenting feature
  5. Primary complex includes the apical cavity and enlarged hilar lymph nodes
  6. Primary pulmonary tuberculosis leads to bronchiectasis of the middle lobe in some cases.

TTTFT

FORENSIC MEDICINE  

 

  1. The following are true regarding abdominal injuries:
  2. they are the commonest cause of death in road traffic accidents
  3. subcapsular liver ruptures causes sudden collapse
  4. a stab injury of the gall bladder is categorized as “fatal in the ordinary course of nature”
  5. ascites is a common complication
  6. effects of a blast wave are commonly seen in the liver and the kidney

FTTFF

 

  1. In a death due to multiple rifled fire arm injuries
  2. a full body x-ray is warranted at the autopsy
  3. range of firing is best estimated with test-firing
  4. exit wounds on the skull shows inner beveling
  5. tattooing indications intermediate range of shooting
  6. a scene visit is done only if the ballistic specialist is available

TTFTF

 

  1. When completing a Medico-Legal Examination Form (MLEF)
  2. a fracture of a milk tooth is categorized as non-grievous
  3. the medical officer’s short signature is placed in the relevant cage
  4. the JMO relies upon the patient’s history in filling the alcohol status
  5. when a patient claims that he has lost consciousness, the category of hurt is “endangering life”
  6. a large extradural hemorrhage is categorized as fatal in the ordinary course of nature

FTFFT

  1. 4. In electrocution
  2. the “joule burn” can be caused after death
  3. the endogenous thermal burn produces the crocodile skin lesion
  4. the exit wound is rarely found
  5. “arc eye” is a complication
  6. death could result due to asphyxia

TFTTT

 

  1. A mason had fallen off a 20 ft height. The following injuries are likely to be found at the autopsy: A. grazed abrasions on the limbs
  2. lacerations of the liver
  3. “sparrow foot” cut injuries on the face
  4. a depressed fracture on the occipital region
  5. tramline contusions on the back of the chest

TTFTF

  1. In sexual offences:
  2. evidence of injuries of restraint indicate lack of consent
  3. the finding of a fresh laceration in the posterior region of the hymen indicates there has been recent penetration of the vagina
  4. the presence of spermatozoa in the vagina is required to prove a charge of rape
  5. injuries in parasexual regions are not seen
  6. consenting sexual intercourse is not considered rape when the child is 15 years

TTFFF

  1. 7. In a putrefied body, the following are useful for identification:
  2. The presence of natural disease
  3. The facial features
  4. The presence of surgical scars
  5. The type of clothing worn and its contents
  6. The presence of tattoos

TFTTT

 

  1. Common injuries seen in victims of torture include:
  2. tram-line contusions
  3. intramuscular contusions of the gluteal region
  4. depressed skull fracture with extradural haemorrhage
  5. falanga (blunt injuries to the soles)
  6. fractures of the long bones in the lower limbs

TTFTT

 

  1. In burn injuries
  2. heat haematomas are seen in the subdural space
  3. pugilistic attitude (flexed posture) is a common finding in charred bodies
  4. heat fractures of the skull are usually blow-out fractures
  5. flexion seen in the fingers indicate cadaveric spasm.
  6. heat ruptures of the skin do not bleed

FTTFT

 

  1. The following statements are true regarding manual strangulation of the neck:
  2. Petechial haemorrhages may be found in the eyes
  3. Death could occur due to vagal inhibition
  4. Cerebral ischaemia is a known consequence
  5. Intimal tears of the carotid artery are commonly seen
  6. Hyoid bone fractures are not seen

TTTFF

ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS

 

List of persons (in alphabetical order) who contributed towards the compiling of these guidelines for students preparing for the ERPM examination

Dr Nilukshi Abeysinghe – Senior Lecturer in Forensic Medicine,  Faculty of Medicine, University of Colombo

Dr Deepika Attygalle – Consultant Community Physician, Family Health Bureau, Ministry of Healthcare and Nutrition

Dr A.P. de Silva, Senior Lecturer, Department of Medicine,  Faculty of Medicine, University of Kelaniya.

Prof. Mohan de Silva – Professor of Surgery, Faculty of Medical Sciences, University of Sri Jayawardenepura

Prof Nilanthi de Silva, Head, Medical Education Centre,  Faculty of Medicine, University of Kelaniya.

Dr Lalindra Gunaratne, Senior Lecturer in Pathology,  Faculty of Medicine, University of Colombo.

Dr Nalika Gunawardene – Senior Lecturer in Community Medicine, Faculty of Medicine, University of Colombo

Dr H.M.S.S.D.  Herath – Consultant Community Physician, Assistant Registrar, Sri Lanka Medical Council.

Prof. Jayantha Jayawardana – Professor of Obstetrics & Gynaecology, and Dean, Faculty of Medical Sciences, University of Sri Jayawardenepura

Prof. Lalitha Mendis – Emeritus Professor University of Colombo and President, Sri Lanka Medical Council

Dr Nihal Nonis – Consultant Physician and Registrar, Sri Lanka Medical Council

Dr Niranthi Perera – Senior Lecturer in Pathology, Faculty of Medicine, University of Colombo

Dr Gominda Ponnamperuma, Lecturer in Medical Education, Faculty of Medicine, University of Colombo

Prof. A.P. Premawardena, Head and Professor, Department of Medicine, Faculty of Medicine,  University of Kelaniya.

 Prof. M. P. Senanayake, Professor in Paediatrics, Faculty of Medicine, University of Colombo

Prof. A.R. Wickremasinghe, Dean and Professor of Public Health,  Faculty of Medicine, University of Kelaniya.

Dr S.S. Williams, Senior Lecturer and Head, Department of Psychiatry, Faculty of Medicine, University of Kelaniya.

 

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